Home SSC CGL PYQ 14 September 2025 Shift 2

SSC CGL 14 September 2025 Shift 2 Question Paper (Tier 1)

Free online practice of the SSC CGL 14 September 2025 Shift 2 previous year question paper (PYQ). All 100 questions are from the actual shift, available in English and Hindi with full solutions. Tap “Start Free Online Test” to attempt it in a timed, exam-like interface.

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Q1 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

GHZ, HIY, IJX, JKW, ?

  1. JHG
  2. KLV
  3. KMN
  4. HGK
निम्नलिखित श्रेणी में प्रश्नवाचक चिन्ह (?) के स्थान पर कौन-सा अक्षर-समूह आएगा?

GHZ, HIY, IJX, JKW, ?

  1. JHG
  2. KLV
  3. KMN
  4. HGK
Q2 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

RXD, RUJ, RRP, ROV, ?

  1. RLC
  2. RDA
  3. RDF
  4. RLB
निम्नलिखित श्रेणी में प्रश्नवाचक चिन्ह (?) के स्थान पर कौन-सा अक्षर-समूह आएगा?

RXD, RUJ, RRP, ROV, ?

  1. RLC
  2. RDA
  3. RDF
  4. RLB
Q3 · General Intelligence & Reasoning

If '÷' means '+', '-' means '×', '+' means '-' and '×' means '÷', then which of the following equations is CORRECT?

  1. 42 × 28 - 30 ÷ 48 + 45 = 45
  2. 42 × 28 - 30 ÷ 48 + 45 = 40
  3. 42 × 28 - 30 ÷ 48 + 45 = 50
  4. 42 × 28 - 30 ÷ 48 + 45 = 48

यदि '÷' का अर्थ '+', '-' का अर्थ '×', '+' का अर्थ '-' तथा '×' का अर्थ '÷' हो, तो निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा समीकरण सही है?

  1. 42 × 28 - 30 ÷ 48 + 45 = 45
  2. 42 × 28 - 30 ÷ 48 + 45 = 40
  3. 42 × 28 - 30 ÷ 48 + 45 = 50
  4. 42 × 28 - 30 ÷ 48 + 45 = 48
Q4 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
What comes next?

3, 8, 18, 35, 61, ?

  1. 88
  2. 98
  3. 97
  4. 100
अगली संख्या क्या होगी?

3, 8, 18, 35, 61, ?

  1. 88
  2. 98
  3. 97
  4. 100
Q5 · General Intelligence & Reasoning

Identify the assumptions that must hold for the statement to be valid, then choose the correct option.
Statement: The rapid advancement of automation and artificial intelligence could lead to significant job displacement, but it also presents an opportunity to create new jobs in emerging industries.

Assumptions:
I. Automation and AI could cause job losses in some sectors.
II. New industries will emerge as a result of automation and AI.
III. The displacement caused by automation is temporary and will be reversed by new industries.

  1. Only I and II are implicit
  2. Only II and III are implicit
  3. All are implicit
  4. Only I is implicit

कथन के वैध होने के लिए आवश्यक मान्यताओं की पहचान कीजिए तथा सही विकल्प चुनिए।
कथन: स्वचालन (Automation) और कृत्रिम बुद्धिमत्ता (Artificial Intelligence) की तीव्र प्रगति से बड़े पैमाने पर रोजगार विस्थापन हो सकता है, लेकिन यह उभरते उद्योगों में नए रोजगार सृजित करने का अवसर भी प्रस्तुत करती है।

मान्यताएँ:
I. स्वचालन और कृत्रिम बुद्धिमत्ता कुछ क्षेत्रों में रोजगार हानि का कारण बन सकते हैं।
II. स्वचालन और कृत्रिम बुद्धिमत्ता के परिणामस्वरूप नए उद्योग उभरेंगे।
III. स्वचालन के कारण होने वाला विस्थापन अस्थायी है और नए उद्योगों द्वारा इसकी भरपाई हो जाएगी।

  1. केवल I और II निहित हैं
  2. केवल II और III निहित हैं
  3. सभी निहित हैं
  4. केवल I निहित है
Q6 · General Intelligence & Reasoning

The position of how many letters will remain unchanged if each of the letters in the word FRIEND is arranged in alphabetical order?

  1. One
  2. Four
  3. Three
  4. Five

यदि FRIEND शब्द के प्रत्येक अक्षर को वर्णानुक्रम में व्यवस्थित किया जाए, तो कितने अक्षरों की स्थिति अपरिवर्तित रहेगी?

  1. एक
  2. चार
  3. तीन
  4. पाँच
Q7 · General Intelligence & Reasoning

Identify the similar address: Shruti Bansal E-55, Palm Greens, Faridabad, 121002

  1. Shruti Bansal E-55, Palm Green, Faridabad, 121002
  2. Shruti Bansal E-55, Palm Greens, Faridabad, 121002
  3. Shruti Bansal E-55, Palm Greens, Faridabad, 121200
  4. Shruti Bansel E-55, Palm Greens, Faridabad, 121002
समान पता (Address) की पहचान कीजिए:

Shruti Bansal E-55, Palm Greens, Faridabad, 121002

  1. Shruti Bansal E-55, Palm Green, Faridabad, 121002
  2. Shruti Bansal E-55, Palm Greens, Faridabad, 121002
  3. Shruti Bansal E-55, Palm Greens, Faridabad, 121200
  4. Shruti Bansel E-55, Palm Greens, Faridabad, 121002
Q8 · General Intelligence & Reasoning

Each of the letters in the word UNIVERSAL is arranged in alphabetical order. How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the letter that is second from the left and the one that is fifth from the right in the new letter-cluster formed?

  1. 7
  2. 8
  3. 6
  4. 9

UNIVERSAL शब्द के प्रत्येक अक्षर को वर्णानुक्रम में व्यवस्थित किया जाता है। बने हुए नए अक्षर-समूह में बाएँ से दूसरे अक्षर तथा दाएँ से पाँचवें अक्षर के बीच अंग्रेजी वर्णमाला में कितने अक्षर हैं?

  1. 7
  2. 8
  3. 6
  4. 9
Q9 · General Intelligence & Reasoning

Find the odd one out from the given alternatives.

  1. Photoshop
  2. Illustrator
  3. CorelDRAW
  4. Linux

निम्नलिखित विकल्पों में से विषम (Odd One Out) का चयन कीजिए।

  1. Photoshop (फोटोशॉप)
  2. Illustrator (इलस्ट्रेटर)
  3. CorelDRAW (कोरलड्रॉ)
  4. Linux (लिनक्स)
Q10 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
A specific pattern of alphabetic transformation has been applied to the first word to produce the second. Identify that pattern and apply it to the third word to determine the correct option.

DEVIL : ABSFI :: OTHER : ?

  1. MRFCP
  2. RWKHU
  3. LQEBO
  4. LRECO
पहले शब्द से दूसरे शब्द में एक विशिष्ट अक्षरीय परिवर्तन किया गया है। उसी परिवर्तन को तीसरे शब्द पर लागू करके सही विकल्प ज्ञात कीजिए।

DEVIL : ABSFI :: OTHER : ?

  1. MRFCP
  2. RWKHU
  3. LQEBO
  4. LRECO
Q11 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
The second word is derived from the first word by applying a specific letter-coding pattern, such as shifting letters forward or backward in the alphabet. Identify the pattern and apply it to the third word.

MASTER : OCUVGT :: LABOUR : ?

  1. NCDQWT
  2. NDERWT
  3. NBCRWT
  4. NEDRWT
दूसरा शब्द पहले शब्द से एक विशेष अक्षर-कोडिंग पैटर्न लागू करके प्राप्त किया गया है। पैटर्न की पहचान कीजिए तथा उसे तीसरे शब्द पर लागू करके सही उत्तर चुनिए।

MASTER : OCUVGT :: LABOUR : ?

  1. NCDQWT
  2. NDERWT
  3. NBCRWT
  4. NEDRWT
Q12 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
Complete the series.

11, 13, 17, 19, ?

  1. 21
  2. 23
  3. 25
  4. 27
श्रेणी को पूर्ण कीजिए।

11, 13, 17, 19, ?

  1. 21
  2. 23
  3. 25
  4. 27
Q13 · General Intelligence & Reasoning

Identify the group that does NOT follow the same pattern as the others.

  1. A1@ : C3# : E5$
  2. B2% : D4^ : F6&
  3. C3* : E5( : G7)
  4. D4_ : F6@ : I9&

निम्नलिखित में उस समूह की पहचान कीजिए जो अन्य समूहों के समान पैटर्न का पालन नहीं करता है।

  1. A1@ : C3# : E5$
  2. B2% : D4^ : F6&
  3. C3* : E5( : G7)
  4. D4_ : F6@ : I9&
Q14 · General Intelligence & Reasoning

A box has 5 red, 3 blue, 2 green balls. Probability of drawing a non-green ball?

  1. 0.5
  2. 0.8
  3. 0.6
  4. 0.7

एक डिब्बे में 5 लाल, 3 नीली तथा 2 हरी गेंदें हैं। एक गैर-हरी (Non-Green) गेंद निकाले जाने की प्रायिकता क्या है?

  1. 0.5
  2. 0.8
  3. 0.6
  4. 0.7
Q15 · General Intelligence & Reasoning

If 9 @ 3 = 36 and 6 @ 2 = 16, then 8 @ 2 = ?

  1. 20
  2. 18
  3. 19
  4. 17

यदि 9 @ 3 = 36 तथा 6 @ 2 = 16, तो 8 @ 2 = ?

  1. 20
  2. 18
  3. 19
  4. 17
Q16 · General Intelligence & Reasoning

In a code language, "The music sounds sweet" is coded as "la ma na ta", "The music sounds loud" is coded as "la ma pa ta", "The song sounds sweet" is coded as "ka ma na ta".
What is the code for "The song sounds loud"?

  1. pa na ka ta
  2. ma na ra ka
  3. la na ya ka
  4. ka ma ta pa

एक कूट भाषा (Code Language) में "The music sounds sweet" को "la ma na ta" लिखा जाता है, "The music sounds loud" को "la ma pa ta" लिखा जाता है तथा "The song sounds sweet" को "ka ma na ta" लिखा जाता है।
"The song sounds loud" का कूट क्या होगा?

  1. pa na ka ta
  2. ma na ra ka
  3. la na ya ka
  4. ka ma ta pa
Q17 · General Intelligence & Reasoning

If 'ABCDE' is coded as 'EDCBA', 'FGHIJ' is coded as 'JIHGF', and 'KLMNO' is coded as 'ONMLK', then how is 'PQRST' coded?

  1. TSRQP
  2. TSRQQ
  3. TSSQP
  4. TSRRP

यदि 'ABCDE' को 'EDCBA', 'FGHIJ' को 'JIHGF' तथा 'KLMNO' को 'ONMLK' लिखा जाता है, तो 'PQRST' को कैसे लिखा जाएगा?

  1. TSRQP
  2. TSRQQ
  3. TSSQP
  4. TSRRP
Q18 · General Intelligence & Reasoning

If 9 $ 3 = 18, 8 $ 2 = 12, then what is 6 $ 4?

  1. 8
  2. 10
  3. 12
  4. 14

यदि 9 $ 3 = 18, तथा 8 $ 2 = 12, तो 6 $ 4 = ?

  1. 8
  2. 10
  3. 12
  4. 14
Q19 · General Intelligence & Reasoning

A 25 L solution has sugar : water = 3 : 2. How much water to make sugar : water = 1 : 1?

  1. 2.5 L
  2. 5 L
  3. 7.5 L
  4. 10 L

25 L के एक विलयन में चीनी : पानी = 3 : 2 है। यदि चीनी : पानी = 1 : 1 करना हो, तो कितना पानी मिलाना होगा?

  1. 2.5 L
  2. 5 L
  3. 7.5 L
  4. 10 L
Q20 · General Intelligence & Reasoning

Ravi is married to Rekha. Rekha's brother is Ramesh. Ramesh's wife is Rina. Rina's son is Raj. How is Raj related to Ravi?

  1. Nephew
  2. Son
  3. Cousin
  4. Brother-in-law

Ravi का विवाह Rekha से हुआ है। Rekha का भाई Ramesh है। Ramesh की पत्नी Rina है। Rina का पुत्र Raj है। Raj, Ravi से किस प्रकार संबंधित है?

  1. भतीजा / भांजा (Nephew)
  2. पुत्र (Son)
  3. चचेरा/ममेरा भाई (Cousin)
  4. साला (Brother-in-law)
Q21 · General Intelligence & Reasoning

Pointing to a man, Seema said, 'His mother is the only daughter of my mother's father.' How is the man related to Seema?

  1. Cousin
  2. Nephew
  3. Brother
  4. Son

एक व्यक्ति की ओर संकेत करते हुए सीमा ने कहा, 'उसकी माँ, मेरी माँ के पिता की इकलौती पुत्री है।' वह व्यक्ति सीमा से किस प्रकार संबंधित है?

  1. चचेरा/ममेरा भाई (Cousin)
  2. भतीजा/भांजा (Nephew)
  3. भाई (Brother)
  4. पुत्र (Son)
Q22 · General Intelligence & Reasoning

After interchanging + & × and 15 & 30, which of the following equations will hold true?

  1. (15+2)×30=60
  2. (30+3)×15=40
  3. (15+4)×30=135
  4. (30+1)×15=40

+ और × तथा 15 और 30 को आपस में बदलने के बाद निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा समीकरण सत्य होगा?

  1. (15+2)×30=60
  2. (30+3)×15=40
  3. (15+4)×30=135
  4. (30+1)×15=40
Q23 · General Intelligence & Reasoning

The symbols @, #, $, © and % are used with the following meaning:
P @ Q means P ≥ Q
P # Q means P ≤ Q
P $ Q means P < Q
P © Q means P > Q
P % Q means P = Q

Statements:
M © N
N # O

Conclusions:
I. M © O
II. M @ O

  1. If only conclusion I is true.
  2. If only conclusion II is true.
  3. If only conclusion III is true.
  4. Neither I nor II is true

@, #, $, © तथा % प्रतीकों का प्रयोग निम्नलिखित अर्थों में किया गया है:
P @ Q का अर्थ P ≥ Q
P # Q का अर्थ P ≤ Q
P $ Q का अर्थ P < Q
P © Q का अर्थ P > Q
P % Q का अर्थ P = Q

कथन:
M © N
N # O

निष्कर्ष:
I. M © O
II. M @ O

  1. यदि केवल निष्कर्ष I सत्य है।
  2. यदि केवल निष्कर्ष II सत्य है।
  3. यदि केवल निष्कर्ष III सत्य है।
  4. न तो I और न ही II सत्य है।
Q24 · General Intelligence & Reasoning

If '+' means '×', '×' means '-', '-' means '÷', then 20 + 5 × 2 - 10 = ?

  1. 89
  2. 67
  3. 78.89
  4. 99.8

यदि '+' का अर्थ '×', '×' का अर्थ '-', तथा '-' का अर्थ '÷' है, तो
20 + 5 × 2 - 10 = ?

  1. 89
  2. 67
  3. 78.89
  4. 99.8
Q25 · General Intelligence & Reasoning

A two-digit number is 4 times the sum of its digits. If the digits are reversed, the new number is 18 more than the original. What is the number?

  1. 24
  2. 30
  3. 36
  4. 32

एक दो-अंकीय संख्या अपने अंकों के योग की 4 गुना है। यदि उसके अंकों को उलट दिया जाए, तो नई संख्या मूल संख्या से 18 अधिक हो जाती है। वह संख्या क्या है?

  1. 24
  2. 30
  3. 36
  4. 32
Q26 · General Awareness

Which of the following best describes the cultural significance of "Mim" in the "Mim Kut festival"?

  1. A rare millet stored for famine
  2. The sacred herb for tribal healing
  3. The last harvest representing survival and love
  4. A mythological offering for spirits only

'मिम कुट (Mim Kut) उत्सव' में 'मिम' के सांस्कृतिक महत्व का सर्वोत्तम वर्णन निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा है?

  1. अकाल के लिए संग्रहीत एक दुर्लभ बाजरा
  2. जनजातीय उपचार के लिए प्रयुक्त पवित्र जड़ी-बूटी
  3. अस्तित्व और प्रेम का प्रतिनिधित्व करने वाली अंतिम फसल
  4. केवल आत्माओं के लिए एक पौराणिक अर्पण
Q27 · General Awareness

The Kharchi Puja of Tripura is associated with worship of how many deities?

  1. 12
  2. 14
  3. 15
  4. 16

त्रिपुरा की खारची पूजा (Kharchi Puja) कितने देवताओं की पूजा से संबंधित है?

  1. 12
  2. 14
  3. 15
  4. 16
Q28 · General Awareness

Consider the following statements about Mughal architecture:
1. Mughal architecture is known for blending Persian, Islamic, Turkish, and Indian styles to create a unique Indo-Islamic aesthetic.
2. Red sandstone and white marble were the two most commonly used materials in Mughal construction.

  1. Only 1 is correct
  2. Only 2 is correct
  3. Both 1 and 2 are correct
  4. Neither 1 nor 2 is correct

मुगल वास्तुकला के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए:
1. मुगल वास्तुकला फारसी, इस्लामी, तुर्की और भारतीय शैलियों के समन्वय से विकसित एक विशिष्ट इंडो-इस्लामिक सौंदर्यशास्त्र के लिए प्रसिद्ध है।
2. लाल बलुआ पत्थर और श्वेत संगमरमर मुगल निर्माण में सबसे अधिक प्रयुक्त दो सामग्री थीं।

  1. केवल 1 सही है
  2. केवल 2 सही है
  3. 1 और 2 दोनों सही हैं
  4. न तो 1 और न ही 2 सही है
Q29 · General Awareness

Which of the following is a correct statement regarding violations in basketball?

  1. A player may stay in the restricted area for 5 seconds.
  2. A team must shoot the ball within 8 seconds of play.
  3. A dribble ends when both hands touch the ball once.
  4. A player remains in play while standing on sideline.

बास्केटबॉल में उल्लंघनों (Violations) के संबंध में निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा कथन सही है?

  1. कोई खिलाड़ी प्रतिबंधित क्षेत्र (Restricted Area) में 5 सेकंड तक रह सकता है।
  2. किसी टीम को खेल प्रारम्भ होने के 8 सेकंड के भीतर गेंद को शूट करना आवश्यक है।
  3. जब गेंद को एक बार दोनों हाथों से छू लिया जाता है, तो ड्रिब्ल (Dribble) समाप्त हो जाता है।
  4. कोई खिलाड़ी साइडलाइन पर खड़े रहते हुए भी खेल में बना रहता है।
Q30 · General Awareness

Which sports player won the bronze medal in the Mixed Team Compound Open Archery event at the Paris 2024 Paralympics?

  1. Harvinder Singh and Jyoti Baliyan
  2. Sheetal Devi and Rakesh Kumar
  3. Sheetal Devi and Harvinder Singh
  4. Rakesh Kumar and Vivek Chikara

पेरिस पैरालंपिक 2024 में मिश्रित टीम कंपाउंड ओपन तीरंदाजी स्पर्धा में कांस्य पदक किस खिलाड़ी जोड़ी ने जीता?

  1. हरविंदर सिंह और ज्योति बालियान
  2. शीतल देवी और राकेश कुमार
  3. शीतल देवी और हरविंदर सिंह
  4. राकेश कुमार और विवेक चिकारा
Q31 · General Awareness

Where was the Americas Regional Office of the New Development Bank (NDB) announced to be established during the BRICS Foreign Ministers' Meeting in 2018?

  1. Mexico City
  2. Buenos Aires
  3. São Paulo
  4. Lima

वर्ष 2018 में ब्रिक्स विदेश मंत्रियों की बैठक के दौरान न्यू डेवलपमेंट बैंक (NDB) के अमेरिका क्षेत्रीय कार्यालय को कहाँ स्थापित करने की घोषणा की गई थी?

  1. मेक्सिको सिटी
  2. ब्यूनस आयर्स
  3. साओ पाउलो
  4. लीमा
Q32 · General Awareness

Which of the following statements best captures the essence of the book Because Words Matter?

  1. Language's role in social justice
  2. Ancient Sanskrit grammar
  3. Novel on colonial India
  4. Linguist's critique of post-colonial English

पुस्तक Because Words Matter का मूल संदेश निम्नलिखित में से किस कथन में सर्वोत्तम रूप से व्यक्त होता है?

  1. सामाजिक न्याय में भाषा की भूमिका
  2. प्राचीन संस्कृत व्याकरण
  3. औपनिवेशिक भारत पर आधारित उपन्यास
  4. उत्तर-औपनिवेशिक अंग्रेज़ी की एक भाषाविद् द्वारा आलोचना
Q33 · General Awareness

Which of the following statements about rockslide is correct?

  1. It affects only the outermost layer of the rock face
  2. It is slower than rock fall
  3. It involves backward rotation of debris
  4. It affects material to considerable depth

रॉकस्लाइड (Rockslide) के संबंध में निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा कथन सही है?

  1. यह केवल चट्टानी सतह की सबसे बाहरी परत को प्रभावित करता है।
  2. यह रॉक फॉल (Rock Fall) की तुलना में धीमा होता है।
  3. इसमें मलबे का पीछे की ओर घूर्णन (Backward Rotation) होता है।
  4. यह पर्याप्त गहराई तक स्थित पदार्थ को प्रभावित करता है।
Q34 · General Awareness

What correctly describes Neeraj Chopra's performance at the Paris Diamond League 2025?

  1. He secured victory with his third throw measuring 88.16m at Stade de France.
  2. His only valid attempt, 88.16m, came in the final round.
  3. He won with his opening throw of 88.16m at Stade Sébastien Charléty.
  4. He placed second with a best throw of 88.16m.

पेरिस डायमंड लीग 2025 में नीरज चोपड़ा के प्रदर्शन का सही वर्णन निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा है?

  1. उन्होंने स्टेड डी फ्रांस में 88.16 मीटर के तीसरे थ्रो के साथ जीत हासिल की।
  2. उनका एकमात्र वैध प्रयास 88.16 मीटर था, जो अंतिम राउंड में आया।
  3. उन्होंने Stade Sébastien Charléty में 88.16 मीटर के शुरुआती थ्रो के साथ जीत दर्ज की।
  4. उन्होंने 88.16 मीटर के सर्वश्रेष्ठ थ्रो के साथ दूसरा स्थान प्राप्त किया।
Q35 · General Awareness

Which distinguished scientist was appointed as the new Chairman of ISRO and Secretary of the Department of Space in January 2025, succeeding S. Somanath?

  1. K Radhakrishnan
  2. K. Sivan
  3. V. Narayanan
  4. S. Sashidhar Sinha

जनवरी 2025 में एस. सोमनाथ के उत्तराधिकारी के रूप में इसरो (ISRO) के नए अध्यक्ष तथा अंतरिक्ष विभाग के सचिव के रूप में किस प्रतिष्ठित वैज्ञानिक की नियुक्ति की गई?

  1. के. राधाकृष्णन
  2. के. सिवन
  3. वी. नारायणन
  4. एस. शशिधर सिन्हा
Q36 · General Awareness

Which of the following statements about dams is/are correct?
1. A dam always refers to a concrete or structural wall built to block water.
2. Spillways in dams help in regulating water flow, either intermittently or continuously.
3. Dams can be classified based on structure, purpose, and height.

  1. Both 1 and 2
  2. Both 2 and 3
  3. Both 1 and 3
  4. 1, 2 and 3 all are correct

बाँधों के संबंध में निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा/से कथन सही है/हैं?
1. बाँध का अर्थ हमेशा पानी को रोकने के लिए बनाई गई कंक्रीट या संरचनात्मक दीवार से होता है।
2. बाँधों में स्पिलवे (Spillways) जल प्रवाह को नियंत्रित करने में सहायता करते हैं, चाहे वह रुक-रुक कर हो या निरंतर।
3. बाँधों का वर्गीकरण उनकी संरचना, उद्देश्य तथा ऊँचाई के आधार पर किया जा सकता है।

  1. 1 और 2 दोनों
  2. 2 और 3 दोनों
  3. 1 और 3 दोनों
  4. 1, 2 और 3 सभी सही हैं
Q37 · General Awareness

Aditya-L1 spacecraft primarily studies which part of the Sun?

  1. Regolith
  2. Corona
  3. Craters
  4. Magnetosphere

आदित्य-एल1 (Aditya-L1) अंतरिक्ष यान मुख्य रूप से सूर्य के किस भाग का अध्ययन करता है?

  1. रेगोलिथ (Regolith)
  2. कोरोना (Corona)
  3. क्रेटर (Craters)
  4. मैग्नेटोस्फीयर (Magnetosphere)
Q38 · General Awareness

Which group consists of non-ferrous metallic minerals that are scarce in India?

  1. Iron, Coal, Bauxite
  2. Copper, Zinc, Lead
  3. Manganese, Bauxite, Limestone
  4. Mica, Dolomite, Felspar

निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा समूह अलौह (Non-Ferrous) धात्विक खनिजों का है, जो भारत में अपेक्षाकृत दुर्लभ हैं?

  1. लोहा, कोयला, बॉक्साइट
  2. ताँबा, जस्ता, सीसा
  3. मैंगनीज, बॉक्साइट, चूना पत्थर
  4. अभ्रक, डोलोमाइट, फेल्सपार
Q39 · General Awareness

Fill in the blank:
Zonal Councils were created by the ________ Act, 1956.

  1. States Reorganisation
  2. Finance Commission
  3. Panchayati Raj
  4. Representation of People

रिक्त स्थान की पूर्ति कीजिए:
क्षेत्रीय परिषदों (Zonal Councils) का गठन ________ अधिनियम, 1956 के अंतर्गत किया गया था।

  1. राज्य पुनर्गठन अधिनियम
  2. वित्त आयोग अधिनियम
  3. पंचायती राज अधिनियम
  4. जन प्रतिनिधित्व अधिनियम
Q40 · General Awareness

Which of the following statements regarding the distribution of legislative powers between the Union and State legislatures is correct?

  1. The State legislature can legislate on matters enumerated in the Union List
  2. The Union legislature can legislate on matters in the Concurrent List only with State approval
  3. The Union Government can issue directions to the States under Article 256
  4. The Union and States have equal powers on matters in the Union List

संघ और राज्य विधानमंडलों के बीच विधायी शक्तियों के वितरण के संबंध में निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा कथन सही है?

  1. राज्य विधानमंडल संघ सूची में उल्लिखित विषयों पर कानून बना सकता है।
  2. संघ विधानमंडल समवर्ती सूची के विषयों पर केवल राज्य की स्वीकृति से कानून बना सकता है।
  3. संघ सरकार अनुच्छेद 256 के अंतर्गत राज्यों को निर्देश जारी कर सकती है।
  4. संघ सूची के विषयों पर संघ और राज्यों की समान शक्तियाँ होती हैं।
Q41 · General Awareness

Read the following statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose the correct option:
Assertion (A): The PSLV-C59 mission, launched in October 2024, achieved a notable milestone for international space cooperation.
Reason (R): This mission successfully deployed the Proba-3 satellites, marking the first dedicated satellite launch for ESA's unique formation-flying experiment.

  1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
  2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
  3. A is true, but R is false
  4. A is false, but R is true

निम्नलिखित कथनों को पढ़िए जिन्हें अभिकथन (A) और कारण (R) के रूप में चिह्नित किया गया है। सही विकल्प का चयन कीजिए।
अभिकथन (A): अक्टूबर 2024 में प्रक्षेपित PSLV-C59 मिशन ने अंतरराष्ट्रीय अंतरिक्ष सहयोग के क्षेत्र में एक उल्लेखनीय उपलब्धि हासिल की।
कारण (R): इस मिशन ने Proba-3 उपग्रहों को सफलतापूर्वक स्थापित किया, जो ESA के विशिष्ट फॉर्मेशन-फ्लाइंग प्रयोग हेतु पहला समर्पित उपग्रह प्रक्षेपण था।

  1. A और R दोनों सत्य हैं तथा R, A की सही व्याख्या है।
  2. A और R दोनों सत्य हैं, परन्तु R, A की सही व्याख्या नहीं है।
  3. A सत्य है, परन्तु R असत्य है।
  4. A असत्य है, परन्तु R सत्य है।
Q42 · General Awareness

Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Samhita (BNSS) ensures access to FIR through which portal?

  1. National Crime Portal
  2. CCTNS
  3. BHAVISHYA
  4. DIGI-FIR

भारतीय नागरिक सुरक्षा संहिता (BNSS) के अंतर्गत FIR तक पहुँच किस पोर्टल के माध्यम से सुनिश्चित की जाती है?

  1. राष्ट्रीय अपराध पोर्टल
  2. CCTNS
  3. भविष्य (BHAVISHYA)
  4. डिजी-एफआईआर (DIGI-FIR)
Q43 · General Awareness

Which of the following pairs of Government Scheme and its associated Nodal Ministry/Department is correctly matched?
1. PM-AASHA – Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution
2. e-NAM – Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare
3. PMKSY – Ministry of Water Resources, River Development & Ganga Rejuvenation
4. RODTEP – Ministry of Finance

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 2 only
  4. 1, 2 and 4

निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा सरकारी योजना एवं उससे संबंधित नोडल मंत्रालय/विभाग का युग्म सही सुमेलित है?
1. PM-AASHA – उपभोक्ता मामले, खाद्य एवं सार्वजनिक वितरण मंत्रालय
2. e-NAM – कृषि एवं किसान कल्याण मंत्रालय
3. PMKSY – जल संसाधन, नदी विकास एवं गंगा संरक्षण मंत्रालय
4. RODTEP – वित्त मंत्रालय

  1. केवल 1 और 2
  2. केवल 2 और 3
  3. केवल 2
  4. 1, 2 और 4
Q44 · General Awareness

Fill in the blank:
Panthi dance is linked to the followers of _____ in Chhattisgarh.

  1. Guru Ghasidas
  2. Kabir
  3. Kabuli
  4. Nanak

रिक्त स्थान की पूर्ति कीजिए:
छत्तीसगढ़ का पंथी नृत्य _____ के अनुयायियों से संबंधित है।

  1. गुरु घासीदास
  2. कबीर
  3. काबुली
  4. नानक
Q45 · General Awareness

According to the 2024 Corruption Perceptions Index (CPI) findings, how does corruption most directly undermine global climate action?

  1. By weakening financial markets in developing countries
  2. By discouraging public participation in environmental protests
  3. By diverting climate funds and allowing undue influence over environmental policies
  4. By increasing competition among fossil fuel companies

भ्रष्टाचार धारणा सूचकांक (CPI), 2024 के निष्कर्षों के अनुसार, भ्रष्टाचार वैश्विक जलवायु कार्रवाई को सबसे प्रत्यक्ष रूप से कैसे कमजोर करता है?

  1. विकासशील देशों में वित्तीय बाजारों को कमजोर करके
  2. पर्यावरणीय विरोध प्रदर्शनों में जनभागीदारी को हतोत्साहित करके
  3. जलवायु निधियों का दुरुपयोग करके तथा पर्यावरणीय नीतियों पर अनुचित प्रभाव की अनुमति देकर
  4. जीवाश्म ईंधन कंपनियों के बीच प्रतिस्पर्धा बढ़ाकर
Q46 · General Awareness

What is the objective of India's new Eco-Tourism Policy in protected areas?

  1. Ban human activity
  2. Maximize profit without community involvement
  3. Balance conservation and livelihoods
  4. Turn areas into resorts

संरक्षित क्षेत्रों में भारत की नई इको-टूरिज्म नीति का उद्देश्य क्या है?

  1. मानवीय गतिविधियों पर पूर्ण प्रतिबंध लगाना
  2. स्थानीय समुदाय की भागीदारी के बिना अधिकतम लाभ कमाना
  3. संरक्षण और आजीविका के बीच संतुलन स्थापित करना
  4. संरक्षित क्षेत्रों को पर्यटन रिसॉर्ट में परिवर्तित करना
Q47 · General Awareness

Which of the following statements about the sugar industry is/are correct?
1. Sugarcane's sucrose content decreases during transportation.
2. Sugar industry is seasonal in nature.
3. The industry is unsuitable for cooperative management.
4. Major sugar-producing states include Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu.

  1. Only 1 and 3
  2. Only 1, 2 and 4
  3. Only 2, 3 and 4
  4. Only 1 and 4

चीनी उद्योग के संबंध में निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा/से कथन सही है/हैं?
1. परिवहन के दौरान गन्ने में सुक्रोज (Sucrose) की मात्रा कम हो जाती है।
2. चीनी उद्योग मौसमी (Seasonal) प्रकृति का होता है।
3. यह उद्योग सहकारी प्रबंधन के लिए उपयुक्त नहीं है।
4. प्रमुख चीनी उत्पादक राज्यों में महाराष्ट्र और तमिलनाडु शामिल हैं।

  1. केवल 1 और 3
  2. केवल 1, 2 और 4
  3. केवल 2, 3 और 4
  4. केवल 1 और 4
Q48 · General Awareness

Which of the following statements correctly describe the MISHTI initiative launched in India?
1. The MISHTI programme is designed to increase mangrove forest cover and enhance livelihood opportunities in coastal areas.
2. It is a project initiated under the Ministry of Rural Development.
3. The program is financed with a mix of fundings coming from the CAMPA Fund and the MGNREGS.

  1. 1 and 2
  2. 1 and 3
  3. 2 and 3
  4. 1, 2, and 3 all

भारत में प्रारंभ की गई MISHTI पहल के संबंध में निम्नलिखित में से कौन-से कथन सही हैं?
1. MISHTI कार्यक्रम का उद्देश्य मैंग्रोव वनों का विस्तार करना तथा तटीय क्षेत्रों में आजीविका के अवसरों को बढ़ाना है।
2. यह ग्रामीण विकास मंत्रालय के अंतर्गत शुरू की गई परियोजना है।
3. इस कार्यक्रम को CAMPA Fund तथा MGNREGS से प्राप्त निधियों के मिश्रण द्वारा वित्तपोषित किया जाता है।

  1. 1 और 2
  2. 1 और 3
  3. 2 और 3
  4. 1, 2 और 3 सभी
Q49 · General Awareness

Which of the following statements are correct?
1. Kalbelia performers rarely document their art due to its oral nomadic heritage.
2. Costumes avoid stitched elements in honor of serpent rituals.
3. The community's art was included in UNESCO ICH list without any written application process.

  1. Only 1
  2. Only 2 & 3
  3. All 1, 2 & 3
  4. Only 1 & 3

निम्नलिखित कथनों में से कौन-से सही हैं?
1. कालबेलिया कलाकार अपनी कला का प्रलेखन बहुत कम करते हैं क्योंकि इसकी परंपरा मौखिक एवं घुमंतू विरासत पर आधारित है।
2. सर्प पूजा परंपराओं के सम्मान में उनकी वेशभूषा में सिले हुए वस्त्रों का उपयोग नहीं किया जाता।
3. समुदाय की कला को UNESCO ICH सूची में बिना किसी लिखित आवेदन प्रक्रिया के शामिल किया गया था।

  1. केवल 1
  2. केवल 2 और 3
  3. 1, 2 और 3 सभी
  4. केवल 1 और 3
Q50 · General Awareness

Consider the following statements:
1. Every Money Bill is a Financial Bill.
2. Every Financial Bill is a Money Bill.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. Only 1
  2. Only 2
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए:
1. प्रत्येक धन विधेयक (Money Bill), वित्त विधेयक (Financial Bill) होता है।
2. प्रत्येक वित्त विधेयक (Financial Bill), धन विधेयक (Money Bill) होता है।
उपरोक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

  1. केवल 1
  2. केवल 2
  3. 1 और 2 दोनों
  4. न तो 1 और न ही 2
Q51 · Quantitative Aptitude

If M : N = 4 : 5, N : O = 6 : 7, and O : P = 9 : 11, then find N : P.

  1. 54 : 77
  2. 45 : 77
  3. 42 : 55
  4. 36 : 63

यदि M : N = 4 : 5, N : O = 6 : 7 तथा O : P = 9 : 11 है, तो N : P ज्ञात कीजिए।

  1. 54 : 77
  2. 45 : 77
  3. 42 : 55
  4. 36 : 63
Q52 · Quantitative Aptitude

What is the result of \( 2\frac{1}{4} \div 0.5 \)?

  1. 4.25
  2. 4.5
  3. 4.75
  4. 5.25

\( 2\frac{1}{4} \div 0.5 \) का मान क्या होगा?

  1. 4.25
  2. 4.5
  3. 4.75
  4. 5.25
Q53 · Quantitative Aptitude

What should be subtracted from 10, 12, 13, 16 so that the remaining numbers may be proportional?

  1. 3
  2. 9
  3. 4
  4. 12

10, 12, 13, 16 में से कितना घटाया जाए ताकि शेष संख्याएँ समानुपाती (Proportional) हो जाएँ?

  1. 3
  2. 9
  3. 4
  4. 12
Q54 · Quantitative Aptitude

If 45% of a number is 0.9 more than 30% of it, what is the number?

  1. 6
  2. 7
  3. 8
  4. 9

यदि किसी संख्या का 45%, उसके 30% से 0.9 अधिक है, तो वह संख्या क्या है?

  1. 6
  2. 7
  3. 8
  4. 9
Q55 · Quantitative Aptitude

Sohan started a business with ₹90,000. After 5 months, Rohan joined with ₹1,50,000. After another 3 months, Sohan withdrew ₹30,000. What is the ratio of their profits at the end of the year?

  1. 32 : 35
  2. 15 : 16
  3. 12 : 15
  4. 11 : 12

सोहन ने ₹90,000 की पूँजी से एक व्यवसाय प्रारम्भ किया। 5 महीने बाद रोहन ₹1,50,000 की पूँजी के साथ शामिल हुआ। इसके 3 महीने बाद सोहन ने ₹30,000 निकाल लिए। वर्ष के अंत में उनके लाभ का अनुपात क्या होगा?

  1. 32 : 35
  2. 15 : 16
  3. 12 : 15
  4. 11 : 12
Q56 · Quantitative Aptitude

Two individuals, A and B, rent a pasture together. A has 18 horses that they graze for 4 months. B grazes 24 cows for 6 months and 36 sheep for 4 months.
The following relationships are given:
- 3 horses are equivalent to 6 cows
- 4 cows are equivalent to 8 sheep
What fraction of rent should A pay?

  1. \( \frac{2}{5} \)
  2. \( \frac{3}{5} \)
  3. \( \frac{4}{5} \)
  4. \( \frac{1}{5} \)

दो व्यक्तियों A और B ने मिलकर एक चरागाह किराये पर लिया। A ने अपने 18 घोड़ों को 4 माह तक चराया। B ने 24 गायों को 6 माह तक तथा 36 भेड़ों को 4 माह तक चराया।
निम्नलिखित संबंध दिए गए हैं:
• 3 घोड़े = 6 गायें
• 4 गायें = 8 भेड़ें
किराये का कितना भाग A को देना चाहिए?

  1. \( \frac{2}{5} \)
  2. \( \frac{3}{5} \)
  3. \( \frac{4}{5} \)
  4. \( \frac{1}{5} \)
Q57 · Quantitative Aptitude

X, Y, and Z started a business with capitals in the ratio 2:3:5. After 3 months, Z withdrew 40% of his capital. After another 3 months, Y withdrew half of his capital. The business continued for a total of 18 months. If total profit is ₹3,24,000, find the ratio of profit shares of X : Y : Z.

  1. 3 : 3 : 5
  2. 3 : 3 : 4
  3. 1 : 2 : 2
  4. 1 : 3 : 1

X, Y तथा Z ने 2 : 3 : 5 के अनुपात में पूँजी लगाकर एक व्यवसाय प्रारम्भ किया। 3 माह बाद Z ने अपनी पूँजी का 40% निकाल लिया। इसके 3 माह बाद Y ने अपनी पूँजी का आधा भाग निकाल लिया। व्यवसाय कुल 18 माह तक चला। यदि कुल लाभ ₹3,24,000 है, तो X : Y : Z के लाभांश का अनुपात ज्ञात कीजिए।

  1. 3 : 3 : 5
  2. 3 : 3 : 4
  3. 1 : 2 : 2
  4. 1 : 3 : 1
Q58 · Quantitative Aptitude

The average age of 40 students in a class is 16 years. When a new student is admitted, the average increases by 0.2 years. What is the age of the new student?

  1. 24.2
  2. 20.2
  3. 19.2
  4. 16.2

एक कक्षा में 40 विद्यार्थियों की औसत आयु 16 वर्ष है। एक नए विद्यार्थी के प्रवेश लेने पर औसत आयु 0.2 वर्ष बढ़ जाती है। नए विद्यार्थी की आयु क्या है?

  1. 24.2
  2. 20.2
  3. 19.2
  4. 16.2
Q59 · Quantitative Aptitude

The monthly average salary for 8 employees plus one supervisor is ₹15,000. If the supervisor earns ₹25,000, what is the average salary of the 8 employees?

  1. ₹14,750
  2. ₹13,000
  3. ₹13,750
  4. ₹13,500

8 कर्मचारियों तथा एक पर्यवेक्षक (Supervisor) का मासिक औसत वेतन ₹15,000 है। यदि पर्यवेक्षक का वेतन ₹25,000 है, तो 8 कर्मचारियों का औसत वेतन क्या होगा?

  1. ₹14,750
  2. ₹13,000
  3. ₹13,750
  4. ₹13,500
Q60 · Quantitative Aptitude

A company has 80 employees, of whom 35% are women. The average monthly salary of the women is ₹72,000, while that of the men is ₹68,000. What is the overall average monthly salary (in ₹ 000) of the whole workforce?

  1. 70.8
  2. 699.4
  3. 245.4
  4. 69.4

एक कंपनी में 80 कर्मचारी हैं, जिनमें से 35% महिलाएँ हैं। महिलाओं का औसत मासिक वेतन ₹72,000 तथा पुरुषों का औसत मासिक वेतन ₹68,000 है। संपूर्ण कार्यबल का कुल औसत मासिक वेतन (₹ हजार में) क्या होगा?

  1. 70.8
  2. 699.4
  3. 245.4
  4. 69.4
Q61 · Quantitative Aptitude

A dress is marked at ₹3,500. A discount offer changes from 10% to 15%. How much extra discount does a customer get?

  1. ₹175
  2. ₹185
  3. ₹195
  4. ₹200

एक ड्रेस का अंकित मूल्य ₹3,500 है। छूट की दर 10% से बढ़ाकर 15% कर दी जाती है। ग्राहक को कितनी अतिरिक्त छूट प्राप्त होगी?

  1. ₹175
  2. ₹185
  3. ₹195
  4. ₹200
Q62 · Quantitative Aptitude

Rohan ordered 5 kg of premium coffee and some additional kilograms of ordinary coffee. The price of the premium coffee per kg was three times that of the ordinary coffee. When the order was delivered, the quantities had been swapped. This change increased his bill by 40%. Find the ratio of the original quantity of premium coffee to the original quantity of ordinary coffee.

  1. 2 : 1
  2. 1 : 3
  3. 1 : 2
  4. 3 : 1

रोहन ने 5 किलोग्राम प्रीमियम कॉफी तथा कुछ अतिरिक्त किलोग्राम साधारण कॉफी का ऑर्डर दिया। प्रीमियम कॉफी का प्रति किलोग्राम मूल्य साधारण कॉफी के मूल्य का तीन गुना था। जब ऑर्डर प्राप्त हुआ, तो पाया गया कि दोनों की मात्राएँ आपस में बदल गई थीं। इस परिवर्तन के कारण उसका बिल 40% बढ़ गया। प्रीमियम कॉफी की मूल मात्रा तथा साधारण कॉफी की मूल मात्रा का अनुपात ज्ञात कीजिए।

  1. 2 : 1
  2. 1 : 3
  3. 1 : 2
  4. 3 : 1
Q63 · Quantitative Aptitude

A certain amount grows to ₹6400 in 2 years and ₹7040 in 3 years. Determine the interest rate.

  1. 10%
  2. 9%
  3. 8%
  4. 11%

एक निश्चित राशि 2 वर्षों में ₹6400 तथा 3 वर्षों में ₹7040 हो जाती है। ब्याज दर ज्ञात कीजिए।

  1. 10%
  2. 9%
  3. 8%
  4. 11%
Q64 · Quantitative Aptitude

A bookseller sells 10 pens for ₹300, but in doing so, he incurs a loss equal to the cost price of 4 pens. The loss percent is:

  1. 40%
  2. 70%
  3. 60%
  4. 50%

एक पुस्तक विक्रेता 10 पेन ₹300 में बेचता है, परंतु ऐसा करने पर उसे 4 पेन के क्रय मूल्य के बराबर हानि होती है। हानि प्रतिशत क्या है?

  1. 40%
  2. 70%
  3. 60%
  4. 50%
Q65 · Quantitative Aptitude

A fruit seller buys three varieties of mangoes. The first variety is bought at 4 for ₹10, the second at 5 for ₹12, and the third at 2 for ₹5. He mixes them in the ratio 2:3:1 respectively. If he sells all the mangoes at 3 for ₹7, what is his approximate gain or loss percentage?

  1. Profit of 4.76%
  2. Loss of 4.76%
  3. Loss of 6%
  4. Profit of 6%

एक फल विक्रेता आम की तीन किस्में खरीदता है। पहली किस्म 4 आम ₹10 में, दूसरी किस्म 5 आम ₹12 में तथा तीसरी किस्म 2 आम ₹5 में खरीदी जाती है। वह इन्हें क्रमशः 2 : 3 : 1 के अनुपात में मिलाता है। यदि वह सभी आमों को 3 आम ₹7 की दर से बेचता है, तो उसका लगभग लाभ या हानि प्रतिशत क्या होगा?

  1. 4.76% का लाभ
  2. 4.76% की हानि
  3. 6% की हानि
  4. 6% का लाभ
Q66 · Quantitative Aptitude

A dealer sets the marked price of a television 20% higher than its cost price. If he gives a discount of 15% and makes a profit of ₹300, what is the cost price of the television?

  1. ₹10,000
  2. ₹12,500
  3. ₹15,000
  4. ₹18,000

एक व्यापारी टेलीविजन का अंकित मूल्य उसके क्रय मूल्य से 20% अधिक निर्धारित करता है। यदि वह 15% की छूट देता है और ₹300 का लाभ कमाता है, तो टेलीविजन का क्रय मूल्य क्या है?

  1. ₹10,000
  2. ₹12,500
  3. ₹15,000
  4. ₹18,000
Q67 · Quantitative Aptitude

A merchant marked an article such that its price was 25% above its cost price. He offered two consecutive discounts of 10% and 20% to a buyer. If he incurred a loss of ₹400, what was the marked price of the article?

  1. ₹5000
  2. ₹2000
  3. ₹2500
  4. ₹1080

एक व्यापारी ने किसी वस्तु का अंकित मूल्य उसके क्रय मूल्य से 25% अधिक रखा। उसने ग्राहक को क्रमशः 10% तथा 20% की दो लगातार छूटें प्रदान कीं। यदि उसे ₹400 की हानि हुई, तो वस्तु का अंकित मूल्य क्या था?

  1. ₹5000
  2. ₹2000
  3. ₹2500
  4. ₹1080
Q68 · Quantitative Aptitude

A drum contains a blend of three chemicals P, Q, and R in the ratio 3:5:2. 30 litres of this blend are removed, and then 12 litres of chemical P and 8 litres of chemical Q are poured into the drum. If the resultant quantity of Q is 20 litres more than the resultant quantity of P, what was the initial total quantity of the mixture (in litres)?

  1. 100
  2. 120
  3. 150
  4. 180

एक ड्रम में तीन रसायनों P, Q तथा R का मिश्रण 3 : 5 : 2 के अनुपात में है। इस मिश्रण में से 30 लीटर निकाल लिया जाता है, तत्पश्चात 12 लीटर रसायन P तथा 8 लीटर रसायन Q मिलाया जाता है। यदि परिणामी मिश्रण में रसायन Q की मात्रा, रसायन P की मात्रा से 20 लीटर अधिक है, तो ड्रम में मिश्रण की प्रारंभिक कुल मात्रा (लीटर में) क्या थी?

  1. 100
  2. 120
  3. 150
  4. 180
Q69 · Quantitative Aptitude

Rahul borrowed a sum of money at simple interest of 5% per annum for the first 3 years, 7% per annum for the next 5 years, and 9% per annum for the period beyond 8 years. If he pays a total of ₹6800 as interest at the end of 10 years, how much money did he borrow?

  1. ₹8000
  2. ₹9000
  3. ₹10000
  4. ₹12000

राहुल ने एक राशि साधारण ब्याज पर उधार ली। पहले 3 वर्षों के लिए ब्याज दर 5% प्रतिवर्ष, अगले 5 वर्षों के लिए 7% प्रतिवर्ष तथा 8 वर्षों के बाद की अवधि के लिए 9% प्रतिवर्ष थी। यदि उसने 10 वर्षों के अंत में केवल ब्याज के रूप में कुल ₹6800 का भुगतान किया, तो उसने कितनी राशि उधार ली थी?

  1. ₹8000
  2. ₹9000
  3. ₹10000
  4. ₹12000
Q70 · Quantitative Aptitude

A cone is such that the area of its base equals its lateral surface area. If radius is r, find the slant height l.

  1. r
  2. 2r
  3. 3r
  4. 4r

एक शंकु (Cone) ऐसा है कि उसके आधार का क्षेत्रफल उसके वक्र पृष्ठीय क्षेत्रफल (Lateral Surface Area) के बराबर है। यदि उसकी त्रिज्या r है, तो उसकी तिर्यक ऊँचाई (Slant Height) l क्या होगी?

  1. r
  2. 2r
  3. 3r
  4. 4r
Q71 · Quantitative Aptitude

A square field of side 28 m has a circular pond in the center. If the area of the pond is 616 m², what is the area of the remaining field?

  1. 148 m²
  2. 168 m²
  3. 678 m²
  4. 682 m²

28 मीटर भुजा वाले एक वर्गाकार मैदान के केंद्र में एक वृत्ताकार तालाब है। यदि तालाब का क्षेत्रफल 616 वर्ग मीटर है, तो शेष मैदान का क्षेत्रफल कितना होगा?

  1. 148 m²
  2. 168 m²
  3. 678 m²
  4. 682 m²
Q72 · Quantitative Aptitude

If the height of a right prism is increased by 50% and base area remains the same, what is the percentage increase in volume?

  1. 25%
  2. 50%
  3. 75%
  4. 100%

यदि एक समकोणीय प्रिज्म (Right Prism) की ऊँचाई में 50% की वृद्धि कर दी जाए तथा आधार का क्षेत्रफल समान रहे, तो उसके आयतन में कितने प्रतिशत की वृद्धि होगी?

  1. 25%
  2. 50%
  3. 75%
  4. 100%
Q73 · Quantitative Aptitude

A circular decorative wall clock with a radius of 20 cm has a design where a chord connects two points on the circumference. This chord, along with two radii, forms an equilateral triangle at the center of the clock face. The smaller segment created by this chord is painted in a contrasting color. What percentage of the clock's total area does this smaller painted segment represent? (Use π≈3.14, √3≈1.732)

  1. 2.88%
  2. 5.6%
  3. 9.08%
  4. 12.5%

20 सेमी त्रिज्या वाली एक वृत्ताकार सजावटी दीवार घड़ी में एक जीवा (Chord) परिधि के दो बिंदुओं को जोड़ती है। यह जीवा तथा केंद्र से खींची गई दो त्रिज्याएँ मिलकर घड़ी के केंद्र पर एक समबाहु त्रिभुज बनाती हैं। इस जीवा द्वारा निर्मित छोटे वृत्तखंड (Minor Segment) को भिन्न रंग से रंगा गया है। यह छोटा रंगा हुआ वृत्तखंड घड़ी के कुल क्षेत्रफल का लगभग कितना प्रतिशत है? (π ≈ 3.14 तथा √3 ≈ 1.732 का प्रयोग कीजिए)

  1. 2.88%
  2. 5.6%
  3. 9.08%
  4. 12.5%
Q74 · Quantitative Aptitude

A cylinder (r = 4 cm, h = 10 cm) is bored through by a hole (r = 2 cm, full height). What percentage of original volume is removed?

  1. 25%
  2. 50%
  3. 75%
  4. 37.5%

एक बेलन (Cylinder) जिसकी त्रिज्या 4 सेमी तथा ऊँचाई 10 सेमी है, उसके बीच से पूर्ण ऊँचाई तक 2 सेमी त्रिज्या का एक छेद किया जाता है। मूल आयतन का कितना प्रतिशत भाग हटाया गया?

  1. 25%
  2. 50%
  3. 75%
  4. 37.5%
Q75 · Quantitative Aptitude

A sector of a circle with a radius of 15 cm has a central angle of 45°. Another sector of the same circle has a central angle of \( \frac{\pi}{4} \) radians. What is the ratio of the area of the first sector to the area of the second sector?

  1. 1 : 2
  2. 2 : 3
  3. 1 : 1
  4. 3 : 4

15 सेमी त्रिज्या वाले एक वृत्त के एक क्षेत्र (Sector) का केंद्रीय कोण 45° है। उसी वृत्त के दूसरे क्षेत्र का केंद्रीय कोण \( \frac{\pi}{4} \) रेडियन है। पहले क्षेत्र के क्षेत्रफल तथा दूसरे क्षेत्र के क्षेत्रफल का अनुपात क्या होगा?

  1. 1 : 2
  2. 2 : 3
  3. 1 : 1
  4. 3 : 4
Q76 · English
Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

CALLOW

  1. Inexperienced
  2. Experienced
  3. Wise
  4. Mature
Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

CALLOW

  1. Inexperienced
  2. Experienced
  3. Wise
  4. Mature
Q77 · English
Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word.

Placatory

  1. Pacifying
  2. Soothing
  3. Aggravating
  4. Conciliatory
Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word.

Placatory

  1. Pacifying
  2. Soothing
  3. Aggravating
  4. Conciliatory
Q78 · English
Choose the correct meaning of the idiom.

Blow hot and cold

  1. To change one's mood or opinion frequently
  2. To talk boastfully
  3. To enjoy both success and failure
  4. To remain consistent in behavior
Choose the correct meaning of the idiom.

Blow hot and cold

  1. To change one's mood or opinion frequently
  2. To talk boastfully
  3. To enjoy both success and failure
  4. To remain consistent in behavior
Q79 · English
Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word.

Fulsome

  1. Overdone
  2. Sincere
  3. Excessive
  4. Lavish
Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word.

Fulsome

  1. Overdone
  2. Sincere
  3. Excessive
  4. Lavish
Q80 · English

Spot the correct spelling of the word meaning 'body-position sense'.

  1. Propriozeption
  2. Propioception
  3. Proprioception
  4. Proprioseption

Spot the correct spelling of the word meaning 'body-position sense'.

  1. Propriozeption
  2. Propioception
  3. Proprioception
  4. Proprioseption
Q81 · English
Choose the correct one-word substitute for:

'A statement that appears self-contradictory yet may be true'

  1. Axiom
  2. Maxim
  3. Paradox
  4. Irony
Choose the correct one-word substitute for:

'A statement that appears self-contradictory yet may be true'

  1. Axiom
  2. Maxim
  3. Paradox
  4. Irony
Q82 · English
Select the correct option to fill in the blank.

Scarcely had the satellite deployed ___ it transmitted its first data packet.

  1. than
  2. when
  3. before
  4. until
Select the correct option to fill in the blank.

Scarcely had the satellite deployed ___ it transmitted its first data packet.

  1. than
  2. when
  3. before
  4. until
Q83 · English
Select the correct option to fill in the blank.

___ having completed the feasibility study, the team requested additional funding.

  1. Having
  2. On
  3. Upon
  4. Despite
Select the correct option to fill in the blank.

___ having completed the feasibility study, the team requested additional funding.

  1. Having
  2. On
  3. Upon
  4. Despite
Q84 · English
Select the correct option to fill in the blank.

It was imperative that the document ___ signed before the close of business.

  1. will be
  2. was
  3. be
  4. had been
Select the correct option to fill in the blank.

It was imperative that the document ___ signed before the close of business.

  1. will be
  2. was
  3. be
  4. had been
Q85 · English
Find the part of the sentence that contains an error.

The perception that the guidelines are optional / rather than compulsory have led / to widespread inconsistencies in compliance / across state-level implementations.

  1. The perception that the guidelines are optional
  2. rather than compulsory have led
  3. to widespread inconsistencies in compliance
  4. across state-level implementations.
Find the part of the sentence that contains an error.

The perception that the guidelines are optional / rather than compulsory have led / to widespread inconsistencies in compliance / across state-level implementations.

  1. The perception that the guidelines are optional
  2. rather than compulsory have led
  3. to widespread inconsistencies in compliance
  4. across state-level implementations.
Q86 · English
Change the following from active to passive.

Historians may well reinterpret the artifact after new evidence emerges.

  1. The artifact may well be reinterpreted by historians after new evidence emerges.
  2. The artifact may have been reinterpreted by historians after new evidence emerges.
  3. The artifact will be reinterpreted well by historians after new evidence emerges.
  4. The artifact could well be reinterpreting by historians after new evidence emerges.
Change the following from active to passive.

Historians may well reinterpret the artifact after new evidence emerges.

  1. The artifact may well be reinterpreted by historians after new evidence emerges.
  2. The artifact may have been reinterpreted by historians after new evidence emerges.
  3. The artifact will be reinterpreted well by historians after new evidence emerges.
  4. The artifact could well be reinterpreting by historians after new evidence emerges.
Q87 · English
Find the part of the sentence that contains an error.

The fact that dissenting opinions are stifled / without due institutional safeguards / reflect a worrying trend in democratic regression / observed across multiple levels of governance.

  1. The fact that dissenting opinions are stifled
  2. without due institutional safeguards
  3. reflect a worrying trend in democratic regression
  4. observed across multiple levels of governance.
Find the part of the sentence that contains an error.

The fact that dissenting opinions are stifled / without due institutional safeguards / reflect a worrying trend in democratic regression / observed across multiple levels of governance.

  1. The fact that dissenting opinions are stifled
  2. without due institutional safeguards
  3. reflect a worrying trend in democratic regression
  4. observed across multiple levels of governance.
Q88 · English
Select the sentence containing the homonym of the highlighted word.

The tripos system at Cambridge remains a model of academic rigor.

  1. The tripos involved oral defense and written modules.
  2. He broke his tripos into discrete phases of analysis.
  3. The ceremonial tripos stool toppled during the investiture.
  4. She passed the natural sciences tripos with distinction.
Select the sentence containing the homonym of the highlighted word.

The tripos system at Cambridge remains a model of academic rigor.

  1. The tripos involved oral defense and written modules.
  2. He broke his tripos into discrete phases of analysis.
  3. The ceremonial tripos stool toppled during the investiture.
  4. She passed the natural sciences tripos with distinction.
Q89 · English
Convert the sentence from passive voice to active voice.

The land is believed to have been acquired illegally by the company through forged documents.

  1. The company is believed to have acquired the land illegally.
  2. The company acquired the land illegally, as believed.
  3. Someone believed the company acquired land illegally.
  4. The company had acquired land using forged documents.
Convert the sentence from passive voice to active voice.

The land is believed to have been acquired illegally by the company through forged documents.

  1. The company is believed to have acquired the land illegally.
  2. The company acquired the land illegally, as believed.
  3. Someone believed the company acquired land illegally.
  4. The company had acquired land using forged documents.
Q90 · English
PASSAGE (Q90–Q94): Cricket, as a sport, has continually evolved in response to changing audience preferences and technological advancements. Among its many formats, Test cricket and One Day Internationals (ODIs) represent two contrasting philosophies—one rooted in endurance and strategy, the other in dynamism and entertainment. Test cricket, often regarded as the pinnacle of the sport, is a format that unfolds over five days, demanding exceptional levels of patience, technique, and mental resilience. It offers players the opportunity to exhibit classical skills and tactical acumen, where the fluctuating tempo mirrors the rhythm of real life—unpredictable, slow-burning, and layered. For purists, Test cricket is an art form, rewarding not merely flamboyance but consistency and grit. In contrast, ODIs compress the drama into a single day. With limited overs, this format prioritizes aggressive batting, innovative bowling variations, and strategic field placements. The adrenaline-infused pace of ODIs appeals to a broader demographic, especially in an era of dwindling attention spans and time constraints. For broadcasters and advertisers, the shorter format offers commercial viability, making it a lucrative spectacle. However, critics argue that the commercialization of ODIs has come at the expense of depth and nuance. In pursuit of viewership, substance often gives way to spectacle. Conversely, defenders of Test cricket lament its declining audience, attributing it to an increasingly entertainment-driven sports culture. Yet, occasional high-stakes encounters—like the Ashes or India-Australia series—still manage to ignite global interest. The ongoing debate between formats is not merely about preference, but about the identity of the sport itself. While both formats have their merits, the challenge lies in preserving the sanctity of Test cricket without undermining the accessibility of ODIs—a delicate balance that cricketing authorities must negotiate in the years ahead.

Which of the following best captures the essence of Test cricket, as described in the passage?

  1. It is long and often boring
  2. It reflects complexity and unpredictability
  3. It includes domestic and emotional elements
  4. It is nostalgic and traditional
PASSAGE (Q90–Q94): Cricket, as a sport, has continually evolved in response to changing audience preferences and technological advancements. Among its many formats, Test cricket and One Day Internationals (ODIs) represent two contrasting philosophies—one rooted in endurance and strategy, the other in dynamism and entertainment. Test cricket, often regarded as the pinnacle of the sport, is a format that unfolds over five days, demanding exceptional levels of patience, technique, and mental resilience. It offers players the opportunity to exhibit classical skills and tactical acumen, where the fluctuating tempo mirrors the rhythm of real life—unpredictable, slow-burning, and layered. For purists, Test cricket is an art form, rewarding not merely flamboyance but consistency and grit. In contrast, ODIs compress the drama into a single day. With limited overs, this format prioritizes aggressive batting, innovative bowling variations, and strategic field placements. The adrenaline-infused pace of ODIs appeals to a broader demographic, especially in an era of dwindling attention spans and time constraints. For broadcasters and advertisers, the shorter format offers commercial viability, making it a lucrative spectacle. However, critics argue that the commercialization of ODIs has come at the expense of depth and nuance. In pursuit of viewership, substance often gives way to spectacle. Conversely, defenders of Test cricket lament its declining audience, attributing it to an increasingly entertainment-driven sports culture. Yet, occasional high-stakes encounters—like the Ashes or India-Australia series—still manage to ignite global interest. The ongoing debate between formats is not merely about preference, but about the identity of the sport itself. While both formats have their merits, the challenge lies in preserving the sanctity of Test cricket without undermining the accessibility of ODIs—a delicate balance that cricketing authorities must negotiate in the years ahead.

Which of the following best captures the essence of Test cricket, as described in the passage?

  1. It is long and often boring
  2. It reflects complexity and unpredictability
  3. It includes domestic and emotional elements
  4. It is nostalgic and traditional
Q91 · English
PASSAGE (Q90–Q94): Cricket, as a sport, has continually evolved in response to changing audience preferences and technological advancements. Among its many formats, Test cricket and One Day Internationals (ODIs) represent two contrasting philosophies—one rooted in endurance and strategy, the other in dynamism and entertainment. Test cricket, often regarded as the pinnacle of the sport, is a format that unfolds over five days, demanding exceptional levels of patience, technique, and mental resilience. It offers players the opportunity to exhibit classical skills and tactical acumen, where the fluctuating tempo mirrors the rhythm of real life—unpredictable, slow-burning, and layered. For purists, Test cricket is an art form, rewarding not merely flamboyance but consistency and grit. In contrast, ODIs compress the drama into a single day. With limited overs, this format prioritizes aggressive batting, innovative bowling variations, and strategic field placements. The adrenaline-infused pace of ODIs appeals to a broader demographic, especially in an era of dwindling attention spans and time constraints. For broadcasters and advertisers, the shorter format offers commercial viability, making it a lucrative spectacle. However, critics argue that the commercialization of ODIs has come at the expense of depth and nuance. In pursuit of viewership, substance often gives way to spectacle. Conversely, defenders of Test cricket lament its declining audience, attributing it to an increasingly entertainment-driven sports culture. Yet, occasional high-stakes encounters—like the Ashes or India-Australia series—still manage to ignite global interest. The ongoing debate between formats is not merely about preference, but about the identity of the sport itself. While both formats have their merits, the challenge lies in preserving the sanctity of Test cricket without undermining the accessibility of ODIs—a delicate balance that cricketing authorities must negotiate in the years ahead.

Which of the following is a criticism of ODIs mentioned in the passage?

  1. Too long for modern viewers
  2. Lack of competitiveness
  3. Loss of depth due to over-commercialization
  4. Fewer international tournaments
PASSAGE (Q90–Q94): Cricket, as a sport, has continually evolved in response to changing audience preferences and technological advancements. Among its many formats, Test cricket and One Day Internationals (ODIs) represent two contrasting philosophies—one rooted in endurance and strategy, the other in dynamism and entertainment. Test cricket, often regarded as the pinnacle of the sport, is a format that unfolds over five days, demanding exceptional levels of patience, technique, and mental resilience. It offers players the opportunity to exhibit classical skills and tactical acumen, where the fluctuating tempo mirrors the rhythm of real life—unpredictable, slow-burning, and layered. For purists, Test cricket is an art form, rewarding not merely flamboyance but consistency and grit. In contrast, ODIs compress the drama into a single day. With limited overs, this format prioritizes aggressive batting, innovative bowling variations, and strategic field placements. The adrenaline-infused pace of ODIs appeals to a broader demographic, especially in an era of dwindling attention spans and time constraints. For broadcasters and advertisers, the shorter format offers commercial viability, making it a lucrative spectacle. However, critics argue that the commercialization of ODIs has come at the expense of depth and nuance. In pursuit of viewership, substance often gives way to spectacle. Conversely, defenders of Test cricket lament its declining audience, attributing it to an increasingly entertainment-driven sports culture. Yet, occasional high-stakes encounters—like the Ashes or India-Australia series—still manage to ignite global interest. The ongoing debate between formats is not merely about preference, but about the identity of the sport itself. While both formats have their merits, the challenge lies in preserving the sanctity of Test cricket without undermining the accessibility of ODIs—a delicate balance that cricketing authorities must negotiate in the years ahead.

Which of the following is a criticism of ODIs mentioned in the passage?

  1. Too long for modern viewers
  2. Lack of competitiveness
  3. Loss of depth due to over-commercialization
  4. Fewer international tournaments
Q92 · English
PASSAGE (Q90–Q94): Cricket, as a sport, has continually evolved in response to changing audience preferences and technological advancements. Among its many formats, Test cricket and One Day Internationals (ODIs) represent two contrasting philosophies—one rooted in endurance and strategy, the other in dynamism and entertainment. Test cricket, often regarded as the pinnacle of the sport, is a format that unfolds over five days, demanding exceptional levels of patience, technique, and mental resilience. It offers players the opportunity to exhibit classical skills and tactical acumen, where the fluctuating tempo mirrors the rhythm of real life—unpredictable, slow-burning, and layered. For purists, Test cricket is an art form, rewarding not merely flamboyance but consistency and grit. In contrast, ODIs compress the drama into a single day. With limited overs, this format prioritizes aggressive batting, innovative bowling variations, and strategic field placements. The adrenaline-infused pace of ODIs appeals to a broader demographic, especially in an era of dwindling attention spans and time constraints. For broadcasters and advertisers, the shorter format offers commercial viability, making it a lucrative spectacle. However, critics argue that the commercialization of ODIs has come at the expense of depth and nuance. In pursuit of viewership, substance often gives way to spectacle. Conversely, defenders of Test cricket lament its declining audience, attributing it to an increasingly entertainment-driven sports culture. Yet, occasional high-stakes encounters—like the Ashes or India-Australia series—still manage to ignite global interest. The ongoing debate between formats is not merely about preference, but about the identity of the sport itself. While both formats have their merits, the challenge lies in preserving the sanctity of Test cricket without undermining the accessibility of ODIs—a delicate balance that cricketing authorities must negotiate in the years ahead.

How are Test cricket and ODIs contrasted in terms of viewer appeal?

  1. Tests are faster and more entertaining
  2. ODIs are only popular among senior fans
  3. Tests reward showmanship over skills
  4. ODIs cater to shorter attention spans
PASSAGE (Q90–Q94): Cricket, as a sport, has continually evolved in response to changing audience preferences and technological advancements. Among its many formats, Test cricket and One Day Internationals (ODIs) represent two contrasting philosophies—one rooted in endurance and strategy, the other in dynamism and entertainment. Test cricket, often regarded as the pinnacle of the sport, is a format that unfolds over five days, demanding exceptional levels of patience, technique, and mental resilience. It offers players the opportunity to exhibit classical skills and tactical acumen, where the fluctuating tempo mirrors the rhythm of real life—unpredictable, slow-burning, and layered. For purists, Test cricket is an art form, rewarding not merely flamboyance but consistency and grit. In contrast, ODIs compress the drama into a single day. With limited overs, this format prioritizes aggressive batting, innovative bowling variations, and strategic field placements. The adrenaline-infused pace of ODIs appeals to a broader demographic, especially in an era of dwindling attention spans and time constraints. For broadcasters and advertisers, the shorter format offers commercial viability, making it a lucrative spectacle. However, critics argue that the commercialization of ODIs has come at the expense of depth and nuance. In pursuit of viewership, substance often gives way to spectacle. Conversely, defenders of Test cricket lament its declining audience, attributing it to an increasingly entertainment-driven sports culture. Yet, occasional high-stakes encounters—like the Ashes or India-Australia series—still manage to ignite global interest. The ongoing debate between formats is not merely about preference, but about the identity of the sport itself. While both formats have their merits, the challenge lies in preserving the sanctity of Test cricket without undermining the accessibility of ODIs—a delicate balance that cricketing authorities must negotiate in the years ahead.

How are Test cricket and ODIs contrasted in terms of viewer appeal?

  1. Tests are faster and more entertaining
  2. ODIs are only popular among senior fans
  3. Tests reward showmanship over skills
  4. ODIs cater to shorter attention spans
Q93 · English
PASSAGE (Q90–Q94): Cricket, as a sport, has continually evolved in response to changing audience preferences and technological advancements. Among its many formats, Test cricket and One Day Internationals (ODIs) represent two contrasting philosophies—one rooted in endurance and strategy, the other in dynamism and entertainment. Test cricket, often regarded as the pinnacle of the sport, is a format that unfolds over five days, demanding exceptional levels of patience, technique, and mental resilience. It offers players the opportunity to exhibit classical skills and tactical acumen, where the fluctuating tempo mirrors the rhythm of real life—unpredictable, slow-burning, and layered. For purists, Test cricket is an art form, rewarding not merely flamboyance but consistency and grit. In contrast, ODIs compress the drama into a single day. With limited overs, this format prioritizes aggressive batting, innovative bowling variations, and strategic field placements. The adrenaline-infused pace of ODIs appeals to a broader demographic, especially in an era of dwindling attention spans and time constraints. For broadcasters and advertisers, the shorter format offers commercial viability, making it a lucrative spectacle. However, critics argue that the commercialization of ODIs has come at the expense of depth and nuance. In pursuit of viewership, substance often gives way to spectacle. Conversely, defenders of Test cricket lament its declining audience, attributing it to an increasingly entertainment-driven sports culture. Yet, occasional high-stakes encounters—like the Ashes or India-Australia series—still manage to ignite global interest. The ongoing debate between formats is not merely about preference, but about the identity of the sport itself. While both formats have their merits, the challenge lies in preserving the sanctity of Test cricket without undermining the accessibility of ODIs—a delicate balance that cricketing authorities must negotiate in the years ahead.

What tone does the author adopt toward the preservation of Test cricket?

  1. Indifferent
  2. Hopeful and critical
  3. Mocking and dismissive
  4. Casual and informal
PASSAGE (Q90–Q94): Cricket, as a sport, has continually evolved in response to changing audience preferences and technological advancements. Among its many formats, Test cricket and One Day Internationals (ODIs) represent two contrasting philosophies—one rooted in endurance and strategy, the other in dynamism and entertainment. Test cricket, often regarded as the pinnacle of the sport, is a format that unfolds over five days, demanding exceptional levels of patience, technique, and mental resilience. It offers players the opportunity to exhibit classical skills and tactical acumen, where the fluctuating tempo mirrors the rhythm of real life—unpredictable, slow-burning, and layered. For purists, Test cricket is an art form, rewarding not merely flamboyance but consistency and grit. In contrast, ODIs compress the drama into a single day. With limited overs, this format prioritizes aggressive batting, innovative bowling variations, and strategic field placements. The adrenaline-infused pace of ODIs appeals to a broader demographic, especially in an era of dwindling attention spans and time constraints. For broadcasters and advertisers, the shorter format offers commercial viability, making it a lucrative spectacle. However, critics argue that the commercialization of ODIs has come at the expense of depth and nuance. In pursuit of viewership, substance often gives way to spectacle. Conversely, defenders of Test cricket lament its declining audience, attributing it to an increasingly entertainment-driven sports culture. Yet, occasional high-stakes encounters—like the Ashes or India-Australia series—still manage to ignite global interest. The ongoing debate between formats is not merely about preference, but about the identity of the sport itself. While both formats have their merits, the challenge lies in preserving the sanctity of Test cricket without undermining the accessibility of ODIs—a delicate balance that cricketing authorities must negotiate in the years ahead.

What tone does the author adopt toward the preservation of Test cricket?

  1. Indifferent
  2. Hopeful and critical
  3. Mocking and dismissive
  4. Casual and informal
Q94 · English
PASSAGE (Q90–Q94): Cricket, as a sport, has continually evolved in response to changing audience preferences and technological advancements. Among its many formats, Test cricket and One Day Internationals (ODIs) represent two contrasting philosophies—one rooted in endurance and strategy, the other in dynamism and entertainment. Test cricket, often regarded as the pinnacle of the sport, is a format that unfolds over five days, demanding exceptional levels of patience, technique, and mental resilience. It offers players the opportunity to exhibit classical skills and tactical acumen, where the fluctuating tempo mirrors the rhythm of real life—unpredictable, slow-burning, and layered. For purists, Test cricket is an art form, rewarding not merely flamboyance but consistency and grit. In contrast, ODIs compress the drama into a single day. With limited overs, this format prioritizes aggressive batting, innovative bowling variations, and strategic field placements. The adrenaline-infused pace of ODIs appeals to a broader demographic, especially in an era of dwindling attention spans and time constraints. For broadcasters and advertisers, the shorter format offers commercial viability, making it a lucrative spectacle. However, critics argue that the commercialization of ODIs has come at the expense of depth and nuance. In pursuit of viewership, substance often gives way to spectacle. Conversely, defenders of Test cricket lament its declining audience, attributing it to an increasingly entertainment-driven sports culture. Yet, occasional high-stakes encounters—like the Ashes or India-Australia series—still manage to ignite global interest. The ongoing debate between formats is not merely about preference, but about the identity of the sport itself. While both formats have their merits, the challenge lies in preserving the sanctity of Test cricket without undermining the accessibility of ODIs—a delicate balance that cricketing authorities must negotiate in the years ahead.

What is the central concern raised in the passage?

  1. Lack of good players for both formats
  2. Scheduling difficulties between formats
  3. Balancing tradition with commercial interests
  4. Reducing cricket formats to two only
PASSAGE (Q90–Q94): Cricket, as a sport, has continually evolved in response to changing audience preferences and technological advancements. Among its many formats, Test cricket and One Day Internationals (ODIs) represent two contrasting philosophies—one rooted in endurance and strategy, the other in dynamism and entertainment. Test cricket, often regarded as the pinnacle of the sport, is a format that unfolds over five days, demanding exceptional levels of patience, technique, and mental resilience. It offers players the opportunity to exhibit classical skills and tactical acumen, where the fluctuating tempo mirrors the rhythm of real life—unpredictable, slow-burning, and layered. For purists, Test cricket is an art form, rewarding not merely flamboyance but consistency and grit. In contrast, ODIs compress the drama into a single day. With limited overs, this format prioritizes aggressive batting, innovative bowling variations, and strategic field placements. The adrenaline-infused pace of ODIs appeals to a broader demographic, especially in an era of dwindling attention spans and time constraints. For broadcasters and advertisers, the shorter format offers commercial viability, making it a lucrative spectacle. However, critics argue that the commercialization of ODIs has come at the expense of depth and nuance. In pursuit of viewership, substance often gives way to spectacle. Conversely, defenders of Test cricket lament its declining audience, attributing it to an increasingly entertainment-driven sports culture. Yet, occasional high-stakes encounters—like the Ashes or India-Australia series—still manage to ignite global interest. The ongoing debate between formats is not merely about preference, but about the identity of the sport itself. While both formats have their merits, the challenge lies in preserving the sanctity of Test cricket without undermining the accessibility of ODIs—a delicate balance that cricketing authorities must negotiate in the years ahead.

What is the central concern raised in the passage?

  1. Lack of good players for both formats
  2. Scheduling difficulties between formats
  3. Balancing tradition with commercial interests
  4. Reducing cricket formats to two only
Q95 · English
Choose the most suitable option to replace the highlighted part of the sentence.

I was discussing about the issue with him.

  1. discussed regarding the issue
  2. had discussion on issue
  3. discussing the issue with him
  4. had been discussing about issue
Choose the most suitable option to replace the highlighted part of the sentence.

I was discussing about the issue with him.

  1. discussed regarding the issue
  2. had discussion on issue
  3. discussing the issue with him
  4. had been discussing about issue
Q96 · English
Choose the most suitable option to replace the highlighted part of the sentence.

You must prevent your brother to do such things.

  1. from doing such things
  2. of doing such things
  3. not to do such things
  4. doing such things
Choose the most suitable option to replace the highlighted part of the sentence.

You must prevent your brother to do such things.

  1. from doing such things
  2. of doing such things
  3. not to do such things
  4. doing such things
Q97 · English
A sentence is provided in direct speech. Choose the option that most accurately conveys the sentence in indirect speech.

She said to me, "Open the window."

  1. She told me open the window.
  2. She told me to open the window.
  3. She told me opening the window.
  4. She said me to open the window.
A sentence is provided in direct speech. Choose the option that most accurately conveys the sentence in indirect speech.

She said to me, "Open the window."

  1. She told me open the window.
  2. She told me to open the window.
  3. She told me opening the window.
  4. She said me to open the window.
Q98 · English
A sentence is provided in indirect speech. Choose the option that most accurately conveys the sentence in direct speech.

She said that they had already left before she arrived.

  1. They have already left before I arrived," she said.
  2. They already left before I arrived," she said.
  3. They had already left before I arrived," she said.
  4. They left before I had arrived," she said.
A sentence is provided in indirect speech. Choose the option that most accurately conveys the sentence in direct speech.

She said that they had already left before she arrived.

  1. They have already left before I arrived," she said.
  2. They already left before I arrived," she said.
  3. They had already left before I arrived," she said.
  4. They left before I had arrived," she said.
Q99 · English
Rearrange the following sentences to form a coherent paragraph.

1. This process, known as photosynthesis, is fundamental to life on Earth as it forms the base of most food webs.
2. Plants, algae, and some bacteria possess a unique ability to convert light energy into chemical energy.
3. The captured light energy is then used to synthesize glucose molecules from water and carbon dioxide.
4. It begins with the absorption of photons by chlorophyll pigments within the plant cells.

  1. 1, 4, 3, 2
  2. 2, 1, 4, 3
  3. 4, 3, 2, 1
  4. 3, 2, 1, 4
Rearrange the following sentences to form a coherent paragraph.

1. This process, known as photosynthesis, is fundamental to life on Earth as it forms the base of most food webs.
2. Plants, algae, and some bacteria possess a unique ability to convert light energy into chemical energy.
3. The captured light energy is then used to synthesize glucose molecules from water and carbon dioxide.
4. It begins with the absorption of photons by chlorophyll pigments within the plant cells.

  1. 1, 4, 3, 2
  2. 2, 1, 4, 3
  3. 4, 3, 2, 1
  4. 3, 2, 1, 4
Q100 · English
Rearrange the following sentences to form a coherent paragraph.

1. This process, a crucial part of the plant's life cycle, is vital for the continued existence of many plant species.
2. Pollination is the transfer of pollen from the male part of a flower to the female part.
3. The transfer can be carried out by various agents, including insects, birds, and wind.
4. Successful pollination leads to fertilization and the subsequent production of seeds and fruits.

  1. 2, 3, 4, 1
  2. 3, 4, 1, 2
  3. 1, 2, 3, 4
  4. 4, 1, 2, 3
Rearrange the following sentences to form a coherent paragraph.

1. This process, a crucial part of the plant's life cycle, is vital for the continued existence of many plant species.
2. Pollination is the transfer of pollen from the male part of a flower to the female part.
3. The transfer can be carried out by various agents, including insects, birds, and wind.
4. Successful pollination leads to fertilization and the subsequent production of seeds and fruits.

  1. 2, 3, 4, 1
  2. 3, 4, 1, 2
  3. 1, 2, 3, 4
  4. 4, 1, 2, 3
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